Spain win World Cup 2010

[Guest]

So what's the craic with Spain's group? If Switzerland win by two does that mean they're guaranteed to go through?

 

Aye, because then if Spain beat Chile by even just 1 goal, Chile's goal difference becomes inferior. If Chile/Spain draw or if Chile beat Spain then Switzerland would still qualify.

 

Looking dodgy for Chile then which is a shame.

[Neil]

Ah, balls, just been talking about this in the other thread.

 

Needless to say, howay Honduras.

[Rich]

who is playing today worth watching ?

 

http://news.bbc.co.uk/sport1/hi/football/world_cup_2010/

 

Argentina and France games for me today.

 

 

Then England game, Germany game, Italy game, Denmark/Japan, Portugal/Brazil and Chile/Spain. What a cracking four days ahead.

[Guest chris]

aint it just!!

[Neil]

Get in, I'll be able to see England's 2nd round match.

 

If...

[Guest chris]

i think portugal will do em!

[Neil]

Well, Brazil will probably be resting players so Portugal have a chance. I wouldn't have thought Portugal could beat even an under-strength Brazil team, if it wasn't for such a convincing display yesterday.

[Guest chris]

just got a feeling they will beat em 1-0 .

but i think there will be a lot of canceling each other out

[Andy]

Portugal won't get a sniff if Brazil put out a full strength team. They only ever concede goals when they're comfortable and lose concentration.

[Dave]

If they won a game each then E could be used to determine who had the aggregate win. But that would be E and F wouldn't be needed.

 

If England won 2-0 and lost 0-2 then E wouldn't apply. I think rule F is written badly, I believe it means ALL goals scored in ALL games (not just head to head).

 

Isn't that C?

[Taylor Swift]

If they won a game each then E could be used to determine who had the aggregate win. But that would be E and F wouldn't be needed.

 

If England won 2-0 and lost 0-2 then E wouldn't apply. I think rule F is written badly, I believe it means ALL goals scored in ALL games (not just head to head).

 

My reading is the last three clauses apply for when there are three teams who have equal points.

[Keefaz]

If they won a game each then E could be used to determine who had the aggregate win. But that would be E and F wouldn't be needed.

 

If England won 2-0 and lost 0-2 then E wouldn't apply. I think rule F is written badly, I believe it means ALL goals scored in ALL games (not just head to head).

 

Isn't that C?

 

Nah, man. Not goal difference just total goals scored by the team in all group games. Which seems harsh, really.

[Mike]

7am doesn't make sense without games on now.

[Dave]

c) greatest number of goals scored in all group matches.

[Keefaz]

Oh. I've no idea, then.

[Dave]

 

Fuck it. As others have mentioned presumably it's just a catch-all set of rules that applies when there are more teams and games.

[High Five o]

Sorry if discussed but what happens if we draw 2-2 and USA draw 0-0?

 

Someone in the pub last night said it goes to drawing lots. Suppose theres no real fair way of deciding by shots/cards etc so could be true

 

Its correct mate.

 

The ranking of each team in each group will be determined as follows:

 

a) greatest number of points obtained in all group matches;

b) goal difference in all group matches;

c) greatest number of goals scored in all group matches.

 

If two or more teams are equal on the basis of the above three criteria,

their rankings will be determined as follows:

 

d) greatest number of points obtained in the group matches between the

teams concerned;

e) goal difference resulting from the group matches between the teams

concerned;

f) greater number of goals scored in all group matches between the teams

concerned;

g) drawing of lots by the FIFA Organising Committee.

 

Does this clear it up?

 

1.goal difference in all group matches (applies in WC)

2.greater number of goals scored in all group matches (applies in WC)

3.greater number of points obtained in matches between the tied teams

4.goal difference in matches between the tied teams

5.greater number of goals scored in matches between the tied teams

6.drawing of lots (applies in WC), or a play-off (if approved by FIFA)

 

 

[Andy]

Like D) and E), F) Refers to goals scored in matches between the teams in stalemate. It can only come into effect if there are three teams involved.

 

[High Five o]

 

Fuck it. As others have mentioned presumably it's just a catch-all set of rules that applies when there are more teams and games.

 

Good shout 

[Ketsbaia]

We're in 2010, yet something as important as getting to round 2 is determined by drawing lots? Thats absolutely shocking tbh. Surely they could use fair play records, world rankings or their record against the 1st placed team. Drawing lots is disgraceful.

 

By the way, what scenario would see Spain finish 1st and Chile 2nd (assuming Switzerland beat Honduras)?

[Taylor Swift]

Spain beats Chile 1-0 and Switzerland beats Honduras 1-0.

[Keefaz]

They drew lots at Italia 90. Ireland beat Holland on lots.

[Taylor Swift]

If Switzerland beats Honduras by less than two goals then they coud go out if Spain beats Chile by only a goal. If they win by more than 2, they're in regardless of what happens in the other match. If they win by only two, then they're guaranteed at least a chance to draw lots, unless Spain beats Chile by a high-scoring one goal margin, which would knock the Swiss out on total goals scored.

[Ketsbaia]

Thanks Apisith 

[Pandamninator]

Personally rather they just used yellow and red cards to determine who went through rather then lots to be honest.