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The Euro 2008 thread: Spain are European champions


madras
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There's nothing in the rules about the ball going backwards. The goalscorer just has to be behind the ball which almost always means that it going backwards is onside.

 

Almost?

 

Yes.

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Guest optimistic nit

if the scores stay the same but turkey beat the czechs 2-0 then they will go through imo (easily possible).

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There's nothing in the rules about the ball going backwards. The goalscorer just has to be behind the ball which almost always means that it going backwards is onside.

 

Almost?

 

Yes, as in it's a rarity to see a pass backwards for player who is offside. Simply because of the way the game flows. But when it happens it is correct.

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There's nothing in the rules about the ball going backwards. The goalscorer just has to be behind the ball which almost always means that it going backwards is onside.

 

Almost?

 

Yes.

 

I don't get it. The goalscorer doesn't have to be behing the ball when the pass is played to him (in the classic case when there is a defender playing him onside), but there can never be offside if the player receiving the pass is behind the player passing the ball regardless of where defenders are (i.e. the third Portugal goal). The pass can be forward or backward, as long as the player receiving the pass starts out behind the passing player when the ball is played. Simple as that no?

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There's nothing in the rules about the ball going backwards. The goalscorer just has to be behind the ball which almost always means that it going backwards is onside.

 

Almost?

 

Yes, as in it's a rarity to see a pass backwards for player who is offside. Simply because of the way the game flows. But when it happens it is correct.

 

No, that's a theoretical impossibility..

 

Edit: well, no it's not I guess, but only when the player was offside and has to run backwards to pick up the backward pass. Not sure where the law stands on that exactly, but I don't think I've ever seen it happen either.. Is that what you are referring to?

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Guest nufc222

if the scores stay the same but turkey beat the czechs 2-0 then they will go through imo (easily possible).

 

Won't they go out as head to head is used before goal difference or did i just make that up.

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As long as the recipient is behind the ball when struck, it doesn't matter what direction the ball is passed in. That's why so many teams can score lay-offs on the break when it's one on one with the keeper.

 

There's nothing in the rules about the ball going backwards. The goalscorer just has to be behind the ball which almost always means that it going backwards is onside.

 

:thup:

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There's nothing in the rules about the ball going backwards. The goalscorer just has to be behind the ball which almost always means that it going backwards is onside.

 

Almost?

 

Yes, as in it's a rarity to see a pass backwards for player who is offside. Simply because of the way the game flows. But when it happens it is correct.

 

No, that's a theoretical impossibility..

 

Edit: well, no it's not I guess, but only when the player was offside and has to run backwards to pick up the backward pass. Not sure where the law stands on that exactly, but I don't think I've ever seen it happen either.. Is that what you are referring to?

 

That's what I was talking about when I said almost always, in that it's not impossible but very unlikely for the ball to go backwards and yet still be offside.

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Guest optimistic nit

if the scores stay the same but turkey beat the czechs 2-0 then they will go through imo (easily possible).

 

Won't they go out as head to head is used before goal difference or did i just make that up.

 

i generally don't know, but if the czechs beat the swiss, the swiss beat turkey and turkey beat the czechs, the head to heads wouldn't matter, as all 3 had beaten each other, so you wouldn't be able to split them.

 

unless goal difference would only count between those 3 teams, in that case turkey would be +1, the swiss 0 and the czechs -1, so turkey would go through.

 

all this is irrevilent for the time being anyway, with the score being 1-1.

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There's nothing in the rules about the ball going backwards. The goalscorer just has to be behind the ball which almost always means that it going backwards is onside.

 

Almost?

 

Yes, as in it's a rarity to see a pass backwards for player who is offside. Simply because of the way the game flows. But when it happens it is correct.

 

No, that's a theoretical impossibility..

 

Edit: well, no it's not I guess, but only when the player was offside and has to run backwards to pick up the backward pass. Not sure where the law stands on that exactly, but I don't think I've ever seen it happen either.. Is that what you are referring to?

 

That's what I was talking about when I said almost always, in that it's not impossible but very unlikely for the ball to go backwards and yet still be offside.

 

Ta!

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